What is the diagnosis for a 32-year-old woman, gravida (number of times pregnant) 3, para (number of viable births) 2, at 35 weeks gestation, presenting with frequent, painful uterine contractions, a history of shortened cervix, and currently 4 cm dilated and 90% effaced with the fetus at -3 station?

Medical Advisory BoardAll articles are reviewed for accuracy by our Medical Advisory Board
Educational purpose only • Exercise caution as content is pending human review
Article Review Status
Submitted
Under Review
Approved

Last updated: April 7, 2025View editorial policy

Personalize

Help us tailor your experience

Which best describes you? Your choice helps us use language that's most understandable for you.

Differential Diagnosis for a 32-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation with frequent, painful uterine contractions

  • Single most likely diagnosis:
    • Preterm labor: This is the most likely diagnosis given the patient's symptoms of frequent, painful uterine contractions, a visibly dilated cervix, and a history of a shortened cervix. The use of vaginal progesterone suggests that the patient was at high risk for preterm labor, and the current clinical presentation is consistent with this diagnosis.
  • Other Likely diagnoses:
    • False labor (Braxton Hicks contractions): Although the patient's contractions are painful and the cervix is dilated, false labor is still a possibility, especially if the contractions are irregular and do not lead to further cervical dilation.
    • Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) with a high presenting part: Although there is no evidence of membrane rupture on speculum examination, it is still possible that the membranes are intact but the patient is at risk for rupture due to the advanced cervical dilation.
  • Do Not Miss diagnoses:
    • Placental abruption: This is a life-threatening condition that can cause painful uterine contractions and vaginal bleeding. Although the patient does not have vaginal bleeding, placental abruption can still occur without bleeding, and it is essential to consider this diagnosis to avoid missing it.
    • Uterine rupture: Although the patient has not had any previous uterine surgery, uterine rupture can still occur, especially in the setting of a shortened cervix and preterm labor. This diagnosis is critical to consider due to its high morbidity and mortality.
  • Rare diagnoses:
    • Cervical stenosis: This is a rare condition where the cervix is narrow and can cause obstructed labor. Although the patient's cervix is dilated, cervical stenosis could be a contributing factor to the patient's symptoms.
    • Uterine dehiscence: This is a rare condition where there is a partial separation of the uterine muscle, which can cause painful uterine contractions and vaginal bleeding. Although the patient does not have vaginal bleeding, uterine dehiscence is still a possibility, especially in the setting of a shortened cervix and preterm labor.

Related Questions

What is the diagnosis for a 30-year-old woman, gravida (number of times pregnant) 3, para (number of viable births) 2, at 37 weeks gestation, presenting with regular, painful contractions, a cervix 4 cm dilated and 90% effaced, and a taut, bulging bag with no presenting fetal part, but normal fetal movement and a normal fetal heart rate tracing with moderate variability and multiple accelerations?
What is the diagnosis for a 32-year-old primigravida (first pregnancy) at 28 weeks gestation presenting with regular uterine contractions, 3 cm cervical dilation, and 90% effacement, with normal fetal movement and no rupture of membranes or vaginal bleeding?
What is the management approach for a 26-year-old primigravid woman at 25 weeks gestation presenting with preterm labor, characterized by intermittent, painful contractions, a temperature of normothermia, blood pressure of normotension, and tachycardia, with a cervix 2 cm dilated and intact amniotic membranes, after administration of indomethacin (indomethacin) for tocolysis?
What are the treatment options for diverticulitis (inflammation of the diverticula) that is resistant to Cipro (ciprofloxacin) and Flagyl (metronidazole)?
What is the diagnosis for a 25-year-old woman, gravida (number of times pregnant) 2, para (number of viable births) 1, at 33 weeks gestation, presenting with intermittent contractions after intercourse, with a cervix 3 cm dilated and no evidence of rupture of membranes?
What is the differential diagnosis of petechiae (small hemorrhagic spots)?

Professional Medical Disclaimer

This information is intended for healthcare professionals. Any medical decision-making should rely on clinical judgment and independently verified information. The content provided herein does not replace professional discretion and should be considered supplementary to established clinical guidelines. Healthcare providers should verify all information against primary literature and current practice standards before application in patient care. Dr.Oracle assumes no liability for clinical decisions based on this content.

Have a follow-up question?

Our Medical A.I. is used by practicing medical doctors at top research institutions around the world. Ask any follow up question and get world-class guideline-backed answers instantly.