Is a low Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF1) level with a z score of -8, elevated Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) and normal Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS) normal in a 52-year-old female with a pituitary adenoma?

Medical Advisory BoardAll articles are reviewed for accuracy by our Medical Advisory Board
Educational purpose only • Exercise caution as content is pending human review
Article Review Status
Submitted
Under Review
Approved

Last updated: April 11, 2025View editorial policy

Personalize

Help us tailor your experience

Which best describes you? Your choice helps us use language that's most understandable for you.

From the Research

The laboratory values provided are abnormal and suggest pituitary dysfunction in this 52-year-old female with a pituitary adenoma, necessitating immediate referral to an endocrinologist for comprehensive evaluation and management. The IGF-1 level of 93 with a z-score of -8 indicates significant growth hormone deficiency, as supported by the study 1, which suggests that very low IGF-I levels in the context of documented hypothalamic or pituitary disease may be helpful in identifying patients with a high probability of GH deficiency. The DHEA level of 394 and DHEAS of 100 are relatively low, suggesting adrenal insufficiency secondary to pituitary dysfunction. The next step should be a comprehensive pituitary hormone panel including morning cortisol, ACTH, TSH, free T4, LH, FSH, and prolactin to fully evaluate pituitary function, as recommended by the study 2, which emphasizes the importance of evaluating gonadal, thyroid, and adrenal function in patients with pituitary tumors. Additionally, the patient should undergo dynamic testing such as an insulin tolerance test or glucagon stimulation test to confirm growth hormone deficiency and assess adrenal reserve, as suggested by the study 3, which highlights the importance of provocative testing in diagnosing GH deficiency. Depending on the complete hormonal evaluation, hormone replacement therapy may be necessary, including hydrocortisone (typically 15-25 mg daily in divided doses), levothyroxine if hypothyroid, and consideration of growth hormone replacement, as discussed in the study 4, which notes that low IGF-1 levels can be independent of anterior pituitary deficiencies and may require treatment. The patient should also have regular MRI monitoring of the pituitary adenoma to assess for growth or compression of surrounding structures, as recommended by the study 5, which emphasizes the importance of individualized management and long-term follow-up in patients with discordant GH and IGF-1 levels. Pituitary adenomas can cause hypopituitarism through direct compression of normal pituitary tissue or disruption of hypothalamic-pituitary communication, leading to multiple hormone deficiencies that require careful evaluation and management, as discussed in the study 2. Key considerations in the management of this patient include:

  • Comprehensive pituitary hormone panel to evaluate pituitary function
  • Dynamic testing to confirm growth hormone deficiency and assess adrenal reserve
  • Hormone replacement therapy as necessary
  • Regular MRI monitoring of the pituitary adenoma
  • Individualized management and long-term follow-up to address potential complications and improve quality of life.

Related Questions

What does it mean to have low Insulin-like Growth Factor-1 (IGF-1) levels?
Is a low Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF1) level with a z score of -8, elevated Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) and normal Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS) normal in a 52-year-old female with a pituitary adenoma?
What is the recommended diagnostic workup and treatment for a 33-year-old patient with suspected pituitary tumor, irregular periods, dizziness, vomiting, and previous elevated prolactin levels?
How to manage elevated blood pressure in a patient status post microadenoma resection who requires steroid therapy?
How do you manage a pituitary adenoma?
What is the appropriate dosing of Metformin (Metformin hydrochloride) for taxation-related purposes, specifically in patients with Impaired renal function?
What is the dosing for Saxagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor) and Metformin (biguanide) combination therapy?
What is the most likely cause of recurrent infections in an 8-year-old boy with a history of numerous skin infections, recurrent lymphadenitis, pneumonia, and Staphylococcus (S.) aureus osteomyelitis?
What is the most likely diagnosis for a 10-year-old boy presenting with excessive worry about his parents' well-being, difficulty falling asleep, and intermittent abdominal pain, with no abnormalities on physical and neurologic examinations?
Does a urine culture with 10,000-25,000 CFU/mL of Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus, group B require antibiotic treatment?
What is the most appropriate next step in management for a 14-month-old boy presenting with acute onset of wheezing, tachypnea, tachycardia, and atelectasis of the left upper lobe?

Professional Medical Disclaimer

This information is intended for healthcare professionals. Any medical decision-making should rely on clinical judgment and independently verified information. The content provided herein does not replace professional discretion and should be considered supplementary to established clinical guidelines. Healthcare providers should verify all information against primary literature and current practice standards before application in patient care. Dr.Oracle assumes no liability for clinical decisions based on this content.

Have a follow-up question?

Our Medical A.I. is used by practicing medical doctors at top research institutions around the world. Ask any follow up question and get world-class guideline-backed answers instantly.