In a 32-year-old woman with severe pelvic pain and hypotension after a motor vehicle accident, with a CT showing a large external pelvic hematoma and active arterial bleeding, what is the most appropriate immediate management?

Medical Advisory BoardAll articles are reviewed for accuracy by our Medical Advisory Board
Educational purpose only • Exercise caution as content is pending human review
Article Review Status
Submitted
Under Review
Approved

Last updated: February 18, 2026View editorial policy

Personalize

Help us tailor your experience

Which best describes you? Your choice helps us use language that's most understandable for you.

Management of Pelvic Trauma with Active Bleeding and Hypotension

The most appropriate immediate management is transfusion of packed red blood cells (pRBCs) combined with immediate pelvic stabilization and preparation for angiographic embolization—emergency laparotomy should be avoided as it dramatically increases mortality in isolated pelvic hemorrhage. 1

Why Emergency Laparotomy is Wrong

Non-therapeutic laparotomy should be avoided in patients with pelvic fracture hemorrhage, as it has been associated with significantly higher mortality rates. 2, 1 The extensive collateral circulation in the retroperitoneum makes surgical control of pelvic bleeding extremely difficult, and laparotomy as the primary intervention increases mortality from the baseline 30-45% to substantially higher rates. 1

Immediate Management Algorithm

Step 1: Simultaneous Resuscitation and Mechanical Stabilization

Begin transfusion of pRBCs immediately while applying a pelvic binder for mechanical closure of the pelvic ring. 1 This addresses both the hypovolemia and the venous/cancellous bone bleeding component. 2

  • Target systolic blood pressure of 80-90 mmHg using permissive hypotension strategy until hemorrhage is controlled 2, 1
  • Minimize crystalloid administration to avoid dilutional coagulopathy 1
  • Pelvic closure can be achieved using a pelvic binder, bed sheet, or C-clamp and should take less than 2 minutes 2, 1

Step 2: Definitive Hemorrhage Control - Angiographic Embolization

This patient requires immediate angiographic embolization as the definitive intervention because CT demonstrates active arterial bleeding (contrast extravasation). 2, 1

  • Bleeding control procedures should be performed as soon as possible, with time from admission to intervention not exceeding 60 minutes 2
  • Mortality increases by approximately 1% for every 3 minutes of delay in achieving hemorrhage control 2, 1
  • The probability of arterial bleeding requiring embolization is 73% in non-responders to initial resuscitation 3
  • Angiographic embolization has success rates of 73-97% for controlling arterial pelvic hemorrhage 1, 4

For hemodynamically unstable patients with multiple bleeding targets on CT (as in this case with "large external pelvic hematoma"), non-selective bilateral embolization of the internal iliac arteries should be performed. 2

Step 3: If Angiography is Delayed

If angiographic embolization cannot be achieved within 60 minutes, preperitoneal packing should be performed to provide temporary hemostasis. 2, 1 This can be done in less than 20 minutes and controls venous bleeding effectively while buying time for angiography. 1

Why IV Fluids and Observation is Inadequate

Observation alone is inappropriate in a patient with hypotension (BP 88/50) and CT evidence of active arterial bleeding. 2, 1 This patient is in hemorrhagic shock (Class III-IV by ATLS classification based on hypotension and presumed blood loss) and requires immediate hemorrhage control procedures. 2

  • Active contrast extravasation on CT has 82-89% sensitivity and 75-100% specificity for arterial bleeding requiring intervention 2
  • Ongoing hemodynamic instability despite adequate pelvic ring stabilization indicates arterial bleeding that cannot be controlled by mechanical measures alone 2, 1

Critical Timing Considerations

Time to hemorrhage control is the most important prognostic factor. 2

  • Mortality increases from 16% to 64% if embolization requires more than 60 minutes 2
  • Blood transfusion requirements typically decrease dramatically (from 3.7 to 0.1 units/hour) after successful angiographic embolization 1

Common Pitfalls to Avoid

  • Do not delay angiography for external fixation in non-responders to resuscitation—44% of patients with fractures amenable to external fixation have arterial bleeding requiring embolization 1, 3
  • Do not remove the pelvic binder prematurely—mechanical stabilization should be maintained until definitive hemorrhage control is achieved 1
  • Do not rely on single hematocrit measurements as an isolated marker for ongoing bleeding 1

References

Guideline

Management of Pelvic Fracture with Active Bleeding and Hypotension

Praxis Medical Insights: Practical Summaries of Clinical Guidelines, 2026

Guideline

Guideline Directed Topic Overview

Dr.Oracle Medical Advisory Board & Editors, 2025

Research

Hemorrhage with pelvic fractures: efficacy of transcatheter embolization.

AJR. American journal of roentgenology, 1979

Related Questions

What is the management for a patient with hypotension and pelvic pain after a motor vehicle accident with a computed tomography (CT) scan showing hyperdensity and ongoing bleeding?
What is the management for a patient with a pelvic fracture, active bleeding, large pelvic hematoma, and hypotension (Blood Pressure = 80/50 mmHg)?
What is the most appropriate management for a patient with a pelvic fracture, active bleeding, large pelvic hematoma, and hypotension (Blood Pressure = 80/50 mmHg)?
What is the management for a patient with a pelvic fracture, active bleeding, large pelvic hematoma, and hypotension (Blood Pressure = 80/50 mmHg)?
What is the best management approach for a patient with a pelvic fracture, tender crepitus pelvis, active bleeding, large pelvic hematoma, and hypotension?
In an adult with new‑onset or worsening ascites of uncertain etiology, when is diagnostic paracentesis indicated, what coagulation thresholds and pre‑procedure preparations are required, how should the procedure be performed and what studies should be sent, and how should the results (e.g., spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, malignant cells) be managed?
What is the recommended management for persistent chin acne in a 30‑year‑old woman?
What serum total testosterone range should be targeted in a transgender man receiving testosterone hormone therapy?
What are the appropriate dosing amounts and timing for fexofenadine and famotidine in an adult with tachycardia due to mast‑cell activation syndrome (MCAS)?
What is the recommended management for an 84‑year‑old woman with severe hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin 1.9 g/dL)?
Is the eGFR for the African American patient reported without a race‑based adjustment?

Professional Medical Disclaimer

This information is intended for healthcare professionals. Any medical decision-making should rely on clinical judgment and independently verified information. The content provided herein does not replace professional discretion and should be considered supplementary to established clinical guidelines. Healthcare providers should verify all information against primary literature and current practice standards before application in patient care. Dr.Oracle assumes no liability for clinical decisions based on this content.

Have a follow-up question?

Our Medical A.I. is used by practicing medical doctors at top research institutions around the world. Ask any follow up question and get world-class guideline-backed answers instantly.