A patient on prednisone for secondary adrenal insufficiency has purplish linear abdominal and flank lesions that improve with azithromycin (Z‑Pack) but recur; are these steroid striae or superficial venous thrombophlebitis, and what is the appropriate workup and management?

Medical Advisory BoardAll articles are reviewed for accuracy by our Medical Advisory Board
Educational purpose only • Exercise caution as content is pending human review
Article Review Status
Submitted
Under Review
Approved

Last updated: February 24, 2026View editorial policy

Personalize

Help us tailor your experience

Which best describes you? Your choice helps us use language that's most understandable for you.

Differential Diagnosis: Steroid Striae vs. Superficial Venous Thrombophlebitis

These purplish linear abdominal and flank lesions that transiently improved with azithromycin are most likely superficial venous thrombophlebitis (SVT), not steroid striae, and require immediate duplex ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis and exclude concurrent deep vein thrombosis.

Clinical Reasoning

The key distinguishing feature here is the response to azithromycin followed by recurrence—this pattern is incompatible with striae but consistent with an inflammatory/thrombotic process that temporarily improved (possibly due to anti-inflammatory effects or coincidental timing) then recurred when the underlying pathophysiology persisted 1.

Why This Is Likely SVT, Not Striae:

  • Striae distensae (stretch marks) from corticosteroids are permanent structural changes in dermal collagen that do not "clear up" with antibiotics or any medication 2
  • SVT characteristically presents with pain, erythema, and tenderness along superficial veins, which can appear as linear purplish lesions on the abdomen or flanks 3, 4
  • The temporal relationship with azithromycin is a red herring—macrolide antibiotics have mild anti-inflammatory properties that may have temporarily reduced local inflammation, but this does not address the underlying thrombosis 5
  • Prednisone for secondary adrenal insufficiency creates a hypercoagulable state, increasing SVT risk through multiple mechanisms including increased coagulation factors and endothelial dysfunction 4, 6

Immediate Diagnostic Workup

Obtain venous duplex ultrasound of the abdomen and flanks immediately to:

  1. Confirm SVT diagnosis and measure exact thrombus length
  2. Assess proximity to deep venous system (inferior vena cava, iliac veins)
  3. Exclude concurrent deep vein thrombosis, which occurs in approximately 25% of SVT cases 1, 4

Baseline laboratory studies before any anticoagulation:

  • Complete blood count with platelet count
  • PT/aPTT
  • Liver and kidney function tests 1

Management Algorithm Based on Ultrasound Findings

If SVT ≥5 cm in Length:

Initiate fondaparinux 2.5 mg subcutaneously once daily for 45 days (first-line), which reduces progression to DVT from 1.3% to 0.2% and recurrent SVT from 1.6% to 0.3% 1, 4

Alternative if parenteral therapy is not feasible: Rivaroxaban 10 mg orally once daily for 45 days 1, 4

If SVT Is Within 3 cm of Deep Veins:

Escalate immediately to therapeutic-dose anticoagulation for at least 3 months, treating as DVT-equivalent due to high risk of proximal extension 1, 4

If SVT <5 cm:

Repeat ultrasound in 7-10 days; initiate anticoagulation only if progression is documented 1

Adjunctive Symptomatic Management

Regardless of anticoagulation decision:

  • Warm compresses to affected areas 1, 5
  • NSAIDs for pain control (avoid if platelets <20,000-50,000/mcL) 1
  • Graduated compression if tolerated 1, 7
  • Early ambulation rather than bed rest to reduce DVT risk 1

Critical Pitfalls to Avoid

  • Do not dismiss this as "just striae" without imaging—approximately 10% of SVT patients develop thromboembolic complications within 3 months despite treatment 1, 6
  • Do not treat with antibiotics—the azithromycin response was coincidental or due to anti-inflammatory effects, not antimicrobial action 3, 5
  • Do not use treatment duration shorter than 45 days if anticoagulation is indicated 1, 7
  • Failing to perform ultrasound risks missing concurrent DVT in 25% of cases 1, 4

Why Striae Are Unlikely

Corticosteroid-induced striae:

  • Develop gradually over weeks to months of exposure
  • Are permanent structural changes that fade from purple to white but never resolve
  • Do not respond to any medication
  • Do not recur after "clearing" 2

The clinical course described—clearing with antibiotics then recurring—is fundamentally incompatible with the pathophysiology of striae distensae.

References

Guideline

Treatment for Superficial Non-Occlusive Lower Extremity Vein Thrombosis

Praxis Medical Insights: Practical Summaries of Clinical Guidelines, 2026

Guideline

Guideline Directed Topic Overview

Dr.Oracle Medical Advisory Board & Editors, 2025

Research

Treating superficial venous thrombophlebitis.

Journal of the National Comprehensive Cancer Network : JNCCN, 2008

Research

Superficial Vein Thrombosis.

The Medical clinics of North America, 2025

Research

Superficial vein thrombosis: a current approach to management.

British journal of haematology, 2015

Related Questions

What is the diagnosis and treatment for acute superficial thrombophlebitis in the right cephalic vein?
Is an antecubital thrombus considered a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or a superficial thrombosis?
What could be causing a 54-year-old female's joint pain, numbness in her fingers, and longstanding lower back pain, given her history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), superficial vein thrombosis, hypertension managed with Amlodipine (amlodipine besylate) 10mg daily, and a history of deafness in one ear with a perforated eardrum?
What is the recommended initial management for a patient with acute superficial vein thrombosis of a branch of the great saphenous vein from the knee to the midcalf measuring more than 5 cm in length?
What could be the cause of a painful bump on a vein in the arm with localized puffiness?
What is the appropriate management of postoperative hypertension in a 12‑year‑old child after an open appendectomy performed under spinal anesthesia?
In a patient with systolic heart failure (HFrEF), persistent hypertension, and a history of coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) who is taking lisinopril 20 mg daily, amlodipine 5 mg daily, amiodarone 100 mg daily, and furosemide 20 mg daily with uncontrolled blood pressure, should the lisinopril dose be increased?
What are the causes of splenomegaly in a 40-year-old woman with a history of gastrointestinal tuberculosis?
What is the recommended evaluation and treatment for iron deficiency anemia in a patient after colostomy creation?
I have a thyroid‑stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 12 µIU/mL; what does this indicate and how should it be managed?
What initial diagnostic tests are recommended for an older adult presenting with progressive memory loss, executive dysfunction, or behavioral changes suggestive of Alzheimer’s disease?

Professional Medical Disclaimer

This information is intended for healthcare professionals. Any medical decision-making should rely on clinical judgment and independently verified information. The content provided herein does not replace professional discretion and should be considered supplementary to established clinical guidelines. Healthcare providers should verify all information against primary literature and current practice standards before application in patient care. Dr.Oracle assumes no liability for clinical decisions based on this content.

Have a follow-up question?

Our Medical A.I. is used by practicing medical doctors at top research institutions around the world. Ask any follow up question and get world-class guideline-backed answers instantly.