What is the management approach for a 71-year-old female patient on lifelong aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) therapy and Brilinta (ticagrelor) therapy for 12 months, presenting with rectal bleeding characterized by bright red blood?

Medical Advisory BoardAll articles are reviewed for accuracy by our Medical Advisory Board
Educational purpose only • Exercise caution as content is pending human review
Article Review Status
Submitted
Under Review
Approved

Last updated: May 2, 2025View editorial policy

Personalize

Help us tailor your experience

Which best describes you? Your choice helps us use language that's most understandable for you.

From the Guidelines

For a 71-year-old female patient on lifelong aspirin and 12-month Brilinta therapy who is experiencing bright red rectal bleeding, I recommend temporarily holding the Brilinta while continuing the aspirin therapy, as aspirin is more critical for her underlying cardiovascular condition. This approach is supported by the British Society of Gastroenterology guidelines, which suggest that aspirin for secondary prevention should not be routinely stopped, and if stopped, should be restarted as soon as haemostasis is achieved 1. The patient should be monitored closely with a complete blood count to assess for anemia and hemodynamic stability should be confirmed. A digital rectal examination should be performed to check for obvious sources of bleeding such as hemorrhoids or fissures. The patient should be advised to increase fiber intake, maintain adequate hydration, and use stool softeners to prevent constipation which could exacerbate bleeding.

While waiting for the GI referral, the patient should be instructed to monitor the frequency and volume of bleeding and report any worsening symptoms immediately. According to the guidelines, P2Y12 receptor antagonist therapy, such as Brilinta, should be reinstated within 5 days 1. This timeframe is based on a large number of studies of discontinuation of antiplatelet therapy in patients with drug-eluting stents, and represents an optimal balance between haemorrhage and thrombosis. The Asian Pacific Association of Gastroenterology (APAGE) and Asian Pacific Society for Digestive Endoscopy (APSDE) practice guidelines also recommend continuing aspirin and withholding clopidogrel (or other P2Y12 inhibitor) in acute non-variceal upper GI bleeding 1.

Key considerations in managing this patient include:

  • Balancing the risk of bleeding with the cardiovascular benefits of antiplatelet therapy
  • Monitoring the patient closely for signs of bleeding or cardiovascular complications
  • Reinstating Brilinta within 5 days to minimize the risk of thrombosis
  • Maintaining aspirin therapy to protect against cardiovascular events
  • Addressing potential underlying causes of bleeding, such as hemorrhoids or fissures, through digital rectal examination and lifestyle modifications.

From the Research

Patient Presentation

The patient is a 71-year-old female with a history of recent standing in January, currently on lifelong aspirin therapy and Brilinta (ticagrelor) therapy for 12 months, presenting with bright red blood from the rectum for the last few days.

Potential Causes and Management

  • Rectal bleeding can have various causes, ranging from benign to life-threatening 2
  • The patient's current medication regimen, including aspirin and ticagrelor, may increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding 3, 4
  • However, studies suggest that the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding with ticagrelor-based dual antiplatelet therapy is not significantly different from clopidogrel-based therapy 3
  • A rectal bleeding algorithm can help identify patients who can be safely managed in primary care, reducing unnecessary emergency admissions 5

Diagnostic Evaluation

  • Diagnostic evaluation for rectal bleeding is complex and may involve assessing risk factors for colorectal cancer, as well as ordering colonoscopies when indicated 6
  • The patient's age and comorbidities should be taken into account when evaluating the risk of colorectal cancer and determining the need for colonoscopy 6

Management Options

  • Reducing the dose of aspirin from 75-100 mg to 50 mg daily may help reduce bleeding events without increasing ischemic risk in patients taking ticagrelor 4
  • The patient's current medication regimen and bleeding risk should be carefully evaluated and managed to minimize the risk of further bleeding events 3, 4
  • Referral to a gastroenterologist (G.I) may be necessary for further evaluation and management of the patient's rectal bleeding, but other management options should also be considered 2, 5

Related Questions

What is the management approach for a 71-year-old female patient on lifelong aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) therapy and Brilinta (ticagrelor) therapy for 12 months, presenting with rectal bleeding characterized by bright red blood?
What is the appropriate management for a 71-year-old female patient with rectal bleeding, not on aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) therapy, and having undergone therapy for 12 months, presenting with bright red blood per rectum?
Is a CT (Computed Tomography) abdomen/pelvis with contrast indicated for rectal bleeding?
What is the initial approach to a patient presenting with rectal bleeding in the Emergency Department (ED)?
What is the cause of rapidly flowing rectal bleeding in a patient with liver cirrhosis, who received a lactulose enema and is on Tinzaparin (Low Molecular Weight Heparin) for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis?
What is the appropriate management for a 71-year-old female patient with rectal bleeding, not on aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) therapy, and having undergone therapy for 12 months, presenting with bright red blood per rectum?
What is the appropriate management for a 71-year-old female patient with rectal bleeding, not on aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) therapy, and having undergone therapy for 12 months, presenting with bright red blood per rectum?
What is the safest antithrombotic agent for long-term use in a 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension, peripheral arterial disease, atrial fibrillation, and a mechanical mitral valve, who is undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) with greater than 70% stenosis in the distal right coronary artery, and is currently on aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid), metoprolol succinate, losartan, atorvastatin, and unfractionated heparin, with an international normalized ratio (INR) of less than 1.5, and previously on warfarin?
What is the management approach for a 71-year-old female patient on lifelong aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) therapy and Brilinta (ticagrelor) therapy for 12 months, presenting with rectal bleeding characterized by bright red blood?
What is the most appropriate oral antithrombotic therapy for a 73-year-old female with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (NVAF) and cardioembolic stroke?
What is the cause of facial swelling without recent introduction of new medications or topical lotions (over-the-counter creams or ointments)?

Professional Medical Disclaimer

This information is intended for healthcare professionals. Any medical decision-making should rely on clinical judgment and independently verified information. The content provided herein does not replace professional discretion and should be considered supplementary to established clinical guidelines. Healthcare providers should verify all information against primary literature and current practice standards before application in patient care. Dr.Oracle assumes no liability for clinical decisions based on this content.

Have a follow-up question?

Our Medical A.I. is used by practicing medical doctors at top research institutions around the world. Ask any follow up question and get world-class guideline-backed answers instantly.