What is the best next step in managing a 41-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation with irregular uterine contractions?

Medical Advisory BoardAll articles are reviewed for accuracy by our Medical Advisory Board
Educational purpose only • Exercise caution as content is pending human review
Article Review Status
Submitted
Under Review
Approved

Last updated: March 31, 2025View editorial policy

Personalize

Help us tailor your experience

Which best describes you? Your choice helps us use language that's most understandable for you.

From the Guidelines

The best next step in management for this patient is to discharge her home with instructions for hydration and rest. This patient is experiencing false labor, also known as Braxton Hicks contractions, which are characterized by irregular uterine contractions without cervical dilation. The reassuring factors include a closed cervix on examination, irregular contractions on tocodynamometry, and a reassuring nonstress test with good fetal heart rate baseline, variability, and accelerations. Although the patient is Group B Streptococcus positive, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis is only indicated once she is in true labor with cervical changes or has rupture of membranes, as stated in the guidelines for prevention of perinatal group B streptococcal disease 1. Since she is not in active labor, there is no need for hospital admission or tocolysis at this time.

Some key points to consider in the management of this patient include:

  • The patient's iron deficiency anemia, for which she is taking a prenatal vitamin and iron supplementation, does not directly impact the current management of her contractions.
  • The patient's history of a vaginal delivery at term with her prior pregnancy suggests that she may be a candidate for a vaginal delivery in the current pregnancy, but this does not affect the current management of her false labor.
  • The patient's positive rectovaginal culture for group B Streptococcus is an important consideration for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis, but as stated in the guidelines, this is only indicated once she is in true labor with cervical changes or has rupture of membranes 1.

The patient should be instructed to return if contractions become regular and more frequent (every 5 minutes for at least an hour), if she experiences rupture of membranes, vaginal bleeding, decreased fetal movement, or any other concerning symptoms. Adequate hydration is particularly important as dehydration from her day at the beach may have contributed to these contractions. According to the guidelines for management of preterm labor, hydration with intravenous fluids is a common initial step in management, but in this case, the patient can be managed with oral hydration at home 1.

From the Research

Patient Assessment

  • The patient is a 41-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 35 weeks gestation with contractions that started 5 hours ago.
  • She has iron deficiency anemia and is taking prenatal vitamins and iron supplementation.
  • The patient has a history of a positive rectovaginal culture for group B Streptococcus and had a vaginal delivery at term with her prior pregnancy.
  • Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg and pulse is 92/min, with a nonstress test showing a baseline of 120/min, moderate variability, and multiple accelerations.

Management Considerations

  • The patient's contractions and gestational age suggest a potential preterm labor, but the cervix is closed on digital cervical examination.
  • According to the studies, antenatal corticosteroids are recommended for fetal lung maturation in threatened preterm delivery between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation 2, 3.
  • However, the patient is at 35 weeks gestation, which is outside the typical recommended range for antenatal corticosteroid administration.
  • Some studies suggest that antenatal corticosteroids may be beneficial even at 35-36 weeks of gestation under particular circumstances 2, 4.
  • The use of antenatal corticosteroids in late preterms is still debated, and further research is needed to determine the benefits and risks 4, 5.

Next Steps

  • Given the patient's gestational age and the uncertainty surrounding the use of antenatal corticosteroids at this stage, the best next step in management would be to closely monitor the patient's condition and consider the potential benefits and risks of antenatal corticosteroid administration 2, 3, 4, 5.
  • The patient's history of iron deficiency anemia and positive rectovaginal culture for group B Streptococcus should also be taken into account when determining the best course of management.

Related Questions

What is the most appropriate management for a 30-year-old woman, gravida (number of times pregnant) 1, para (number of viable births) 0, at 29 weeks gestation, presenting with increasing fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, and bilateral leg swelling, with a hemoglobin level of 11.2 g/dL, thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), and 2+ pitting edema?
What is the initial management for threatened preterm labor?
What is the recommended regimen for antenatal corticosteroids (ACS) in pregnant women at risk of preterm delivery?
What is the approach to a patient with preterm prelabor rupture of membranes (PPROM)?
What is the treatment for a 26-year-old female at 33 weeks of pregnancy experiencing labor pain with a cervical os of 4 cm?
What is the most likely cause of infertility in a 36-year-old nulligravida (woman who has never been pregnant) with a history of submucosal fibroid resection, now presenting with monthly pelvic pain without menstrual bleeding, despite normal Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH), Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH), and prolactin levels?
What are the causes of hypophosphatemia (low phosphorus levels)?
Is melatonin supplementation helpful in nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy (NFLE)?
What are the investigations for elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP)?
What is the best next step in managing a 32-year-old woman at 40 weeks gestation with spontaneous rupture of membranes and regular contractions?
What is the most appropriate response to a 37-year-old primigravida (first pregnancy) at 32 weeks gestation requesting a home birth with a doula (birth companion) after being influenced by a friend's experience and a documentary on hospital delivery cesarean rates?

Professional Medical Disclaimer

This information is intended for healthcare professionals. Any medical decision-making should rely on clinical judgment and independently verified information. The content provided herein does not replace professional discretion and should be considered supplementary to established clinical guidelines. Healthcare providers should verify all information against primary literature and current practice standards before application in patient care. Dr.Oracle assumes no liability for clinical decisions based on this content.

Have a follow-up question?

Our Medical A.I. is used by practicing medical doctors at top research institutions around the world. Ask any follow up question and get world-class guideline-backed answers instantly.